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Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by Polished
8/26/2008  1:57:00 AM
Page 17. " Even the novice should remember that every step taken outside partner must be placed in CBMP to ensure that the two bodies are kept in close contact ". The Weave from a Promenade Position has CBMP on step one and step four. Page 158.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by anymouse
8/26/2008  7:37:00 AM
"Page 17. " Even the novice should remember that every step taken outside partner must be placed in CBMP to ensure that the two bodies are kept in close contact ". The Weave from a Promenade Position has CBMP on step one and step four. Page 158."

As I said repeatedly the subject step, which is the first of a chasse and not any part of a weave, is across in promenade and CBMP.

But the point is not the repeatedly stated fact that it is in CBMP, the point is that there is also an explicit instruction in the book to UTILIZE CBM.

Had the step been the first of a weave, we would step into CBMP as in any promenade but the man would not utilize CBM, because the couple is turning sharply enough towards the man that the CBM both partners usually have on the first step of promenades is not appropriate for him.

Please stop confusing the concepts of CBM and CBMP: the book is full of cases where you have one, or the other, or both together. They are distinct but compatible.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by Polished
8/26/2008  3:04:00 PM
News Flash.There is no turn whilst a person is stepping into CBMP ( any dance ) we do not bend it.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by anymouse
8/26/2008  3:36:00 PM
"News Flash.There is no turn whilst a person is stepping into CBMP ( any dance ) we do not bend it."

While the direction of movement does not change during step 1 (it is not "bent") the book does in fact document 1/8 TURN into the first step of the weave from promenade.

What this literally means is that the man's foot is not placed in the same alignment on step 1 as it was on the preceding step 3. You can see this quite clearly in the footprint diagram: the whisk ended with the feet DC, but the first step of the weave has the foot squarely aligned to the center.

What it implies is that the figure is turning sharply enough that the person on the inside of the turn will not have CBM on the first step, in contrast to most other promenades where both partners have CBM on the first step. And indeed, we find that the man
does not have CBM specified on step 1 of the weave from promenade.

Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by Polished
8/26/2008  4:24:00 PM
I can't follow you there. The first step in Promenade after a Whisk in the diagram is the feet pointing diag to wall and not diag to centre. These are the man'steps not the ladies.
On step one of the Weave from Promenade does have CBMP on step one and step four..
There is no turn on one or four. The turn is on 2 3 and 5 6.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by anymouse
8/26/2008  5:28:00 PM
"The first step in Promenade after a Whisk in the diagram is the feet pointing diag to wall and not diag to centre. "

The passage you are responding to is about the weave from promenade, but you are giving the alignments for something else such as a chasse from promenade.

This is what I said that you were responding to:

"While the direction of movement does not change during step 1 (it is not "bent") the book does in fact document 1/8 TURN into the first step of the weave from promenade."

Polished continued:

"On step one of the Weave from Promenade does have CBMP on step one and step four.."

Yes, this has been stated numerous times.

"There is no turn on one or four. The turn is on 2 3 and 5 6."

Wrong. There is in fact 1/8 turn into step one for the man when the weave from promenade follows a whisk. That's the change you will see in your footprint diagram from DC at the end of the whisk to the first step of the weave being placed aligned squarely to the center.


Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by Polished
8/26/2008  5:07:00 PM
Anonymous. Are we on the same page 146 to 147 Diagrams on 148 and 149. Where does it say 1/8 turn on step one for the man. This is the first step in Promenade after a Whisk on which the man has no turn if the correct alignment is abided by.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by anymouse
8/26/2008  5:14:00 PM
"Anonymous. Are we on the same page 146 to 147 Diagrams on 148 and 149. Where does it say 1/8 turn on step one for the man. This is the first step in Promenade after a Whisk on which the man has no turn if the correct alignment is abided by."

You are still not looking at the chart for the weave from promenade. If you were, you would see the 1/8 turn into step one.

In the version of Ballroom Dancing that you can view on google books, you will see on page 155 that the last step of the whisk has the man's foot aligned to DC while the first of the weave has it squarely to center. That is 1/8 turn. To quote the ISTD book, it says under amounts of turn "1/8 between preceding step and 1"
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by Polished
8/26/2008  6:44:00 PM
Come on now. You are looking at a foot position from the Whisk. Alex never thought that anybody was of the opinion that they had step over their own foot.That would be the LF which would also have to turn. To create CBMP the shoulder is already in position . There is absolutely no mention of 1/8th of a turn as being part of step one. All of the turn takes place on 2 and 3.
Looking at the chart your way you will see that on step three there is a fraction of a turn of the foot. But we all know that the body is turning 3/8 of a turn on steps 2 and 3.
Do you get it. RF pointing to centre on step 1.
Re: Tango (Waltz, Really)
Posted by anymouse
8/26/2008  6:58:00 PM
"Come on now. You are looking at a foot position from the Whisk."

I'm looking at the foot position of the first step of the weave. It shows that turn has been made since the previous step, something that you claimed does not happen. This is because you still don't understand that turn is measured between the feet positions and not in some other way.

"1/8th of a turn as being part of step one. All of the turn takes place on 2 and 3."

You are simply wrong. Look it up - it's right there in the diagram in Moore, and right there in the text in the ISTD. Why not have a look at page 155 of Moore's book online at google books?

"Looking at the chart your way you will see that on step three there is a fraction of a turn of the foot."

The fraction is 1/8 of turn, which is to say 45 degrees or the difference between DC and squarely center.

"Do you get it. RF pointing to centre on step 1."

And it wasn't on the previous step. Which is why there is actually turn during step one.

Do you understand yet that "turn" is measured between the foot positions?

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